Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?
The one that the majority of americans either voted for, or allowed into office by consequence of inaction? That rapist pedophile? Guess they all got what they wanted, then. Lofl
We honestly don’t know that that happened.