Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?
He’ll get what he wants, too.
They got two choices; peaceful shutdown or slow, painful collapse.
🤔 I see more choices, e.g. violent painful shutdown.