The US government seized nearly 1 million barrels of Iranian crude oil allegedly bound for China, according to newly unsealed court documents and a statement released by the Department of Justice on Friday.
Not piracy. Being held accountable to the laws in which there is proper jurisdiction.
You’re making a strange nonsensical argument. Lets plug your argument into a similar theoretical situation:
Lets say a US company owns a truck and is transporting cocaine in the United States from a South American drug cartel to their drug distribution networks in Vancouver, British Columbia. The police pull over the truck and find the drugs. Being illegal they seize the truck and the drugs. You’re arguing the South American drug cartel should be given their cocaine back because the cartel and the drug distribution network in Vancouver is outside of the United States. That makes your logic laughably naive, willfully ignorant, or maliciously in bad faith.
What gives the US proper jurisdiction? Iran did not agree to be sanctioned. Nor do they have to adhere to a law made in the United States, unless they agreed to it internationally. My argument is sound. Other countries don’t have to obey US law, unless they agreed to that law. This isn’t difficult.
The company that chose to operate within the US jurisdiction, in these cases, by owning the vehicles to doing the transport.
Iran did not agree to be sanctioned.
What kind of schoolyard logic are you working with here? Do you really have no idea how geopolitics works? No country has to have permission to sanction another. It is a choice one country makes to no buy from another. There is nothing preventing Iran from selling its oil to China. They’re just not allowed to do it with anything that is owned by the US government, US companies and those countries that choose to follow the same sanctions.
Nor do they have to adhere to a law made in the United States, unless they agreed to it internationally.
They absolutely do if they’re using something owned by the USA, in this case the tanker itself.
My argument is sound.
Your argument is naive, willfully ignorant, or maliciously in bad faith.
Other countries don’t have to obey US law, unless they agreed to that law.
Indirectly Iran agreed to it with the use of a US owned tanker. Why did they think they could do that when it breaks US law?
This isn’t difficult.
I agree it isn’t difficult. Don’t want to be bound by US rules and law? Don’t use US owned property, operating in US waters, use US banking systems, or any of the other countries that choose to follow US sanctions against a country. See how easy it is?
Once owned? You mean during the time the crime was committed?
Why is piracy okay?
Not piracy. Being held accountable to the laws in which there is proper jurisdiction.
You’re making a strange nonsensical argument. Lets plug your argument into a similar theoretical situation:
Lets say a US company owns a truck and is transporting cocaine in the United States from a South American drug cartel to their drug distribution networks in Vancouver, British Columbia. The police pull over the truck and find the drugs. Being illegal they seize the truck and the drugs. You’re arguing the South American drug cartel should be given their cocaine back because the cartel and the drug distribution network in Vancouver is outside of the United States. That makes your logic laughably naive, willfully ignorant, or maliciously in bad faith.
What gives the US proper jurisdiction? Iran did not agree to be sanctioned. Nor do they have to adhere to a law made in the United States, unless they agreed to it internationally. My argument is sound. Other countries don’t have to obey US law, unless they agreed to that law. This isn’t difficult.
The company that chose to operate within the US jurisdiction, in these cases, by owning the vehicles to doing the transport.
What kind of schoolyard logic are you working with here? Do you really have no idea how geopolitics works? No country has to have permission to sanction another. It is a choice one country makes to no buy from another. There is nothing preventing Iran from selling its oil to China. They’re just not allowed to do it with anything that is owned by the US government, US companies and those countries that choose to follow the same sanctions.
They absolutely do if they’re using something owned by the USA, in this case the tanker itself.
Your argument is naive, willfully ignorant, or maliciously in bad faith.
Indirectly Iran agreed to it with the use of a US owned tanker. Why did they think they could do that when it breaks US law?
I agree it isn’t difficult. Don’t want to be bound by US rules and law? Don’t use US owned property, operating in US waters, use US banking systems, or any of the other countries that choose to follow US sanctions against a country. See how easy it is?