The title claims that the purpose of the 2A was for slavers. But the actual argument is that the 2A was changed to appease slavers. Doesn’t that imply that the 2A preexisted the slaver’s concern and may have had other purposes?

I’m skeptical because there has been a revisionist movement that argues the whole war of independence was to preserve slavery, an argument that is not compelling. I’m also suspicious of an editorial, written like a history, with no citations.

Lastly, arguing over the intentions of the framers is a reactionary game. The problem with the 2A is not what it was intended to do in the 18th Century, but what it’s actually doing in the 21st.